Why does Spain have enclaves in Morocco?

Upvote:5

Long story short:

  • Ceuta was conquered by Portugal in 1415, and was "transferred" to Spain in 1640. Melilla was "acquired" in 1497. Other minor places like VΓ©lez de la Gomera was conquered in 1508. So most of these places were conquered during the Age of Discovery, just at the beginning of European colonialism.
  • The population of these places are largely of ethnic Spanish descent, although there are also large old minorities of people of Arabs/Berber extraction, Sephardic Jews, and Indians (from India).
  • Ceuta was conquered by the Visigoths already in 675, but c. 710 it became the foothold from where the Arab conquest of the Iberian Peninsula was launched.

I can be wrong, but as a Spanish citizen I would say that Spain retains these cities mostly because of their strategic value (cf. Gibraltar), and because there is also some psychological involvement (cf. Serbs and Kosovo).

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