Biblical basis for treating a second marriage as sinful even in cases of adultery?

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Some people believe that "except for infidelity" was a later addition.

Simply put, there are groups of Christians who believe that Jesus banned divorce entirely, and the "except for infidelity" clause was inserted by later scribes as a way of softening Jesus's words.

After all, immediately after Jesus says this, the disciples who hear it are shocked at how limited Jesus had made the requirements of divorce. This wouldn't make sense if he allowed divorce in response to adultery, since at the time, there was a debate between two camps of rabbis on whether divorce was only allowable in response to adultery, or if a husband could divorce his wife for any reason. If Jesus was just supporting one camp of rabbis over another, would that really have been so unexpected?

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Biblical basis for treating a second marriage as sinful even in cases of adultery?

Some people believe that "except for infidelity" was a later addition.

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