What is the biblical basis for the prohibition of instruments in worship?

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Accepted answer

I'm familiar with a couple different schools of thought on this. Doubtless there are others as well.

The first comes from Greek Orthodox tradition. I can't really speak to it directly, but a quick google search turned up a result indicating that it might have more to do with history and wanting to separate themselves from pagan worship. But there's likely a lot more to it.

The other is from the churches of Christ. This side I can speak to at length. To understand this, you need to know something of their history. The churches of Christ descend trough the Restoration movement of the mid-1800s. This was a movement that strove to throw off all of the excess structure that had arisen over the years since the 1st century and restore 1st century-style worship. The primary means of achieving this goal was through a very careful and strict interpretation of scripture. "Innovations" from known historical patterns of the first century should only be permitted when there is a clear case for them, shown either through direct command, example, or necessary inference.

The reason for the return to 1st century worship was a reaction to all divisions, and a desire to fulfill the Lord's prayer "that they may all be one." It was a drive for unity, and one part of this was to push away anything a true seeker might possibly see as contrary to scripture, and hold up only those things which meet an exceptionally strict criteria for doctrinal purity (the other two parts are congregational independence/freedom and an strong emphasis on individual study). Don't knock the process too hard, as it met with some success... this is one of the few major groups to begin it's history as the result of a merger of a few smaller groups, rather than as a split from a larger group, and was the only group in existence at the time with a strong presence in both the North and the South to make it through the Civil War without dividing over the issue (sadly, this claim is the result of a prior study for which I no longer have a reference link).

There are four pieces that combine to contribute the general (not universal, but nearly so) use of a cappella music among church of Christ congregations.

The first is a very strict interpretation on the silence of scripture. I don't want to go into this at length, but you can read my answer to this question on faith healing to get a vague idea on how it works. The upshot is we lack explicit New Testament instructions or examples on the use of instruments (while singing or otherwise) in congregational worship — scripture is silent here. However, we do have explicit instructions to sing. Because we have an explicit instruction about how to use music in worship, the silence in this case is prohibitive rather than permissive. This by itself is weak, but remember it's only part of the reasoning.

The second reason is participatory. The command to sing praises is interpreted to mean that music in worship should include everyone as a participant... that if the music portion of your service consists mainly of just a few performers or even a choir, while the majority of the congregation is only listening (even if this is the effect rather than the intent), you're doing it wrong. The entire congregation should take part in producing the music. Instruments are seen as counter-productive to this effort, as history shows they have a tendency to take over and dominate the performance to the exclusion, rather than inclusion, of audience participation.

A third reason is practical. Successful use of a cappella music in worship is something that takes a commitment. If you decide to just try out a cappella music one week in service, or just do one a cappella song in each service, you're likely to fail miserably if few of the participants have done this before. Therefore, as a practical matter the choice to use a cappella music came down to an "all or nothing" approach, where those that use a cappella music in worship tend to do so exclusively. If you see a commandment to sing as a congregation as something to take seriously, a commitment to frequent a cappella worship is something to look at seriously.

The final reason is historical. Remember this group comes out of a movement whose goals were to restore 1st century worship styles. We do know from historical documents that the earliest Christians, without exception, did not use instruments in their worship. At all. In fact, it's already the third century before we find examples of any instrumental accompaniment, and some sources place it as late as the sixth century.1 It's possible there were forces other than doctrine driving this, such as: limited funds, fear of persecution if louder instruments give away a secret service, or simply modeling congregational worship after Jewish synagogue worship (which also did not use instruments). However, the fact of the matter is that the historical record indicates a cappella is the way to go.

1 Not my original source, but I recently came across this article that has more info on the historical sources, with lots of research references: http://www.housetohouse.com/HTHPubPage.aspx?pub=2&issue=663

Upvote:-1

Unfortunately, I see this author using incorrect history of the Lord's church. There "is" only one church that Christ stated He would build (Matt. 16:18) and His church which is "The Body of Christ" and is made up of faithful believers who subscribe to the single doctrine of the bible. This assembly began on the day of Pentecost and still exist today and ascribes to glorify God the only way He can be - through biblical truth. There never was mechanical instruments used in worship in the instructions and authority given by Christ. Therefore we as mere men do not have the authority to change what God has handed down through His inspired word. At our redeemed best, we could only hope to be found obedient and pleasing to God through Christ Jesus and His law that we must abide in, in unity. I'd like to add, why is it that we fight so hard to justify something into the worship, which is for God but be all about our OWN desires.

Upvote:-1

The problem with answering a question regarding any matter is that we must agree on the terms and context. Many answers regarding this question are created by people who establish their own premise rather than the bible. Now, using the bible using from the New testament, the church of Christ was established on the day of Pentecost not the 1800s.

My premise will be argued from the position of commandment not silence of scripture. A commandment is inclusive AND exclusive not prohibitive OR permissible.

If one looked at the OT, one doesn't need to study much to find that no person who deemed themselves in fellowship with God could add or subtract from what He said or they were dealt with severely.

Leviticus 10 :1ff and l Samuel 15:1ff should suffice as examples however the OT is replete with examples.

All one has to do is show that nothing could be added or taken away from the worship of God thus proving that instruments music is not permitted.

The bible does teach that one can be permitted to do something if it not expressly prohibited AND does not violate a command.

Upvote:0

In Amos, Yahuah makes railings/condemnations against the people for a number of behaviors or traditions, such as: "Ye that ....cause the seat of violence to come near; ...that lie upon beds of ivory ...eat lambs from out of the flock ...chant to the sound of the viol and ...invent to themselves instruments of music, like David; that drink wine in bowls... but they are not grieved for the afflicion of Joseph.

 THEREFORE THEY SHALL NOW GO CAPTIVE with the first that go captive
 and the banquet of them that stretched themselves shall be removed.

Upvote:0

In elder times, instrumental music was associated with enjoyments that were regarded as sinful by many, like dancing. Dancing events got even forbidden by the authorities, and so on. There was no music except for liturgic chanting in christian worship.

Up to this day, the islamic Taliban forbid music for the exact same reason, not only in worship, but generally. Because music enjoys your heart, it simply must be a sin.

Observe also, that islamic worshipping has no instrumental music.

It looks like some christian factions play the same backwardish role in Christianity that Taliban and Salafists play in Islam.

The argument that the New Testament does not say that we may play music is ridiculous and an example for the poor reasoning that is so common among fundamentalist groups. Does the New Testament mention that we may go by car to the church? By bus? By bicylce? Does it mention that there was heating powered by electricity or natural gas? Surely, you don't need that in Greece and in the Middle East, so this is perhaps a good reason why people in Alaska should be freezing during worships.

So, to answer the question: there is no biblical basis whatsoever for prohibiting instrumental music, which is why it has been adopted by the vast majority of christians.

Upvote:0

There are a few reasons given by Orthodox Christians for not using instruments in worship. (Most of the worship is sung a cappella by the priest and congregation, with a choir to help the congregation with the melody etc.)

One is that first-century Jews did not use instruments in worship, and that practice was continued by Christians, as were many other practices.

Another is a desire to avoid performance detracting from worship in any way, and to make it easier for everyone to keep their focus on God.

Most songs used in Orthodox worship services either come straight from the Bible (especially the Psalms), or are Biblically based. Some tell of some saint or angel, or otherwise are based in church history. Some are sung at every worship service of a particular type, such as Vespers or Divine Liturgy. Some are appointed to be sung on certain days or seasons, such as during the Christmas season or the Birth of John the Baptist. Usually the priest or choir director decides which hymns to sing based on where we are on the church calendar, and chooses the melody or arrangement (from a range of possible choices).

Upvote:1

I haven't yet seen anyone mention that the original Greek word psallo in the context of Eph. 5:19 means singing and praising (making melody) with your heart to The Lord. The instrument used here is the heart. Just FYI. Understanding the original Greek meaning of psallo, as with any other translated word is vital in worshipping God correctly. If we add mechanical instruments to our worship assembly we are, as John taught in 2 Jn 9, going too far and not abiding in the teaching of Christ. In Eph 5:19 Paul is telling us of what Christ taught him by way of the Holy Spirit. Ultimately I believe it comes down to faith and obedience. On a side note, check out sometime what the "reformers" had to say about using mechanical instruments in the worship assembly. This was after 1500A.D.

Upvote:4

The accepted answer is an excellent response, however, the only biblical basis for prohibition of instruments is the "silence of the scriptures" argument. The argument states that if the Bible is absolutely silent on a given action, then that action is prohibited. Note that for many who use the argument, any concept of "permissive silence" is not silence at all, rather such actions are considered a necessary inference under an explicitly approved generic action.

For example, the Bible does not speak explicitly about traveling via car or airplane to "preach the gospel to every creature." It merely says "go." So "go" would be the explicit, generic action under which "drive car" or "fly airplane" could be implied/necessarily inferred. This is not the same as "silence" with this particular line of argumentation. The Bible does speak on these matters, just not explicitly.

Now, back to the topic of instrumental music. If the Bible, or rather, New Testament, says absolutely nothing about instrumental music, then it is prohibited (per the argument). So then the biblical basis of whether or not instrumental music is prohibited hinges on whether or not the New Testament says absolutely nothing about it.

So is there absolute silence on the topic? I don't think so. For one, I could argue that singing is a generic action under which optional instrumental accompaniment is implied, and therefore permissible.

Another line of argumentation goes something like this:

  • The Old Testament explicitly permitted instrumental music (2 Chr. 29:25; Ps. 33:2)
  • The first Christians were Jews who used instrumental music
  • The Old Testament was "unbound" as a law (Col. 2:14-17)
  • "Unbound" Old Testament law is now optional (Col. 2:16; Rom. 14:1ff.)
  • There is no explicit prohibition against instrumental music in the New Testament
  • Therefore, instrumental music is optional

Upvote:8

This website gives a general idea about what some of the Churches of Christ teach about music in worship.

As a result of the distinctive plea of the church - a return to New Testament Faith and practice - acappella singing is the only music used in the worship. This singing, unaccompanied by mechanical instruments of music, conforms to the music used in the apostolic church and for several centuries thereafter (Ephesians 5:19). It is felt that there is no authority for engaging in acts of worship not found in the New Testament. This principle eliminates the use of instrumental music, along with the use of candles, incense, and other similar elements.

I have been to a Church of Christ myself (my wife and I also got married at a Church of Christ). I asked the Pastor there about this. He said something like:

"We don't use musical instruments because the New Testament does not mention musical instruments. We are silent where the NT is silent and hence we don't use musical instruments."

Other than that, I don't see any other reason, Biblically, why some churches don't have musical instruments for worship.

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