Could there have been a different translation for Matthew 14:28? (Catholic perspective)

Upvote:0

D.A. Carson writes "Peter's protasis ('if it's you') is a real condition, meaning 'since it's you.' Earlier Satan has said 'if you are the Son of God', where 'if' means 'since', not 'maybe'.

Here is a greek analysis if you're interested: εἰ (ei) Strong: G1487

GK: G1623

if, Mt. 4:3, 6; 12:7; Acts 27:39, freq.; since, Acts 4:9; whether, Mk. 9:23; Acts 17:11; that, in certain expressions, Acts 26:8, 23; Heb. 7:15; by a suppression of the apodosis of a sentence, εἰ serves to express a wish; O if! O that! Lk. 19:42; 22:42; also a strong negation, Mk. 8:12; Heb. 3:11; 4:3; εἰ καί, if even, though, although, Lk. 18:4; εἰ μή, unless, except, Mt. 11:27; also equivalent to ἀλλά, but, Mt. 12:4; Mk. 13:32; Lk. 4:26, 27; εἰ μήτι, unless perhaps, unless it be, Lk. 9:13; εἴ τις, εἴ τι, pr. if any one; whosoever, whatsoever, Mt. 18:28. The syntax of this particle must be learned from the grammars. As an interrogative particle, whether, Acts 17:11; in NT as a mere note of interrogation, Lk. 22:49

Upvote:3

This is not a Catholic-specific question; however, the translation (which appears in the ESV) accurately represents the Greek: εἰ σὺ εἶ (“if it is you”). (See the corresponding entry in the Liddell & Scott dictionary.)

That the Catholic Church basically accepts this interpretation is confirmed by looking at the Latin Vulgate (the translation favored by most Catholics for centuries): si tu es.

Note that in the Greek, the word “you” is redundant (εἶ—the one with the circumflex accent—by itself already means “you are” or “it is you”). Thus, Peter here is emphasizing the “you”: that is, “if it is you (and not someone else)….”

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