What is the best way to distinguish when God (the son) is talking in His human nature or in His divine?
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Your question contains or suggests several good questions, but I will focus on the last paragraph. The historic Chalcedonian position on "What is the best way to distinguish when god the son is talking in his human nature or his divine?" is to not make such a distinction.
For clarity, let me emphasise that in this answer I am assuming that God the Son specifically refers to the incarnate Word, Jesus Christ.
Historically, since the Third Ecumenical Council (Ephesus) most of Christianity has accepted that that distinction is not appropriate. This was expressed by the council in Cyril of Alexandria's fourth anathema against Nestorius:
If anyone shall divide between two persons or subsistences those expressions (φωνάς) which are contained in the Evangelical and Apostolical writings, or which have been said concerning Christ by the Saints, or by himself, and shall apply some to him as to a man separate from the Word of God, and shall apply others to the only Word of God the Father, on the ground that they are fit to be applied to God: let him be anathema.
The actions of Christ are to be attributed to the person of Christ in which the two natures are united. We can say things like "Christ had the authority to forgive sins because the divine nature is united in His person." It is wrong, however, "The divine nature (to the exclusion of the human nature) of Christ forgave sins"
As to the Father's will, or how the Son is less than the Father, or how the Father is the God of the Son, those are other worthwhile questions.
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