Why did Jacob insist that Joseph's sons were his?

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This appears to be essentially a bit of pragmatism. The foremost heir would inherit a double share of the father's inheritance, (this is what Elisha was referring to in 2 Kings 2:9,) and Joseph had been given this honor.

Since the inheritance was to be passed down throughout generations, and Joseph had two sons, Jacob essentially said "we'll do it like this: each of your two sons gets a full share, and that takes care of your double share."

Upvote:2

In patriarchal times, inheritance was [almost exclusively] passed-on to actual offspring of the family.

Jacob in essence is adopting Joseph's two sons so that he can bless them and "legally" pass-on their inheritance.

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