Interpreting two recent studies on Aryan Invasion/Migration theory?
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Accepted answer
The first paper basically says that genetically, some remains dated around 2500BCE from an Indus Valley Civilization individual show no central Asian (presumably Indo-European) component.
The second says that Modern South Asians do have that genetic component.
Both are entirely consistent with a historical picture where Indo-European speakers from central Asia moved into that area sometime around or after the end of the Indus Valley Civilization. They weren't there before, and now they are. Pretty simple.
If you read the second paper further, they even try to date and map this movement using ancient genetic sources.
This is also entirely consistent with the current historical consensus around the Indo-Aryan migrations, which is that they started moving into the area around 1800BCE. This is helpfully illustrated with this animated gif from Wikipedia:
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