score:8
I'll provide a few comparisons; this is an interesting question that deserves a book length treatment. My apologies if in my attempt to be brief I oversimplify either side.
The American revolution occurred at the beginning of the British imperial age; the first Indian rebellion occurred during the height of Imperial power. The American revolution occurred during a time when the English constitution was undergoing significant reform; the first Indian revolution took place when the English consitution was fixed. Without getting too Whigish, the American revolution was driven by the desire to guarantee English rights to Englishmen living in English territory, and so enjoyed significant popular support even within the mother country. ("independence" was an accidental outcome desired by neither side). India sought rights which were somewhat alien to the English domestic population. John Bull could sympathize with the notion that an Englishman shouldn't be taxed without representation; it was more difficult to persuade John Bull that enlisted men should be protected against beef tallow. The American revolution had a relatively coherent ideology; the Indian revolution as wikipedia states, failed to provide a corresponding ideology. Probably the most important factor was that the United States relied on the assistance of France, while India had no similar external ally.
Update: @Lohoris asks about the native populations. Both countries had native populations. The British policy in America was to displace the native population and settle the territory as English territory. (Jack Rakove's lectures are indispensible to understanding this), while India was more densely populated and the British policy centered on economic exploitation rather than full displacement and incorporation. I think the British strategy in India was in part derived from the results of the American revolution, which is one of several reasons I chose not to address it. I think the role of the British relationship to the native population is complex and nuanced, and I know that I'm not qualified to address that question, and I'd be very skeptical of anyone who tried to deal with that question in an essay the length of a SE post.
I'd love someone to analyze the diversity of the rebelling populations, the role of the Company, and other factors.
Upvote:-2
the 1857 revolt was not fought with formal methods. There never had a intent of attainig independance whatsover
Upvote:0
Another factor is, that if you look down the Indian history,
Strangely, a feeling, or motion of decentralization has always been prevalent.
That makes the suppression way easier.
Most other things have been answered by other friends here.
One small and large factor, was intent. It would be very wrong to call 1857 a war of Independence.
It was the last outburst of the falling feudalism. There never had been any intent of attaing Independence whatsoever.
some discontent, dishonor, and feudal interests were mostly the only things behind 1857
There was no concept of nationalism, and it never came before 1907
The Americans, had the zeal
Thats all I'll say, and leave the rest to you
Upvote:1
The American Revolution took place under much more favorable circumstances.
First, the American Revolution took place just before the Industrial Revolution (when colonial arms were as good as British arms). The Indian Revolution took place well into the Industrial Revolution (when home country arms were potentially much better).
The Americans had a higher standard of living that the British in 1776, and the American Revolution was fought largely to protect that standard of living. In their book, Generations, William Strauss and Neil Howe pointed out that American kids had far better childhood nutrition, and the average Continental soldier was two inches taller than the average Redcoat. The average Indian and a lower standard of living, and was shorter than the British. Also, American literacy rates compared favorably to Britain; Indian rates did not.
The American Revolution involved 13 out of 14 or 15 colonies (depending on whether you count Canada as one or two colonies. The Indian revolution was fairly localized to the northern and western parts of the country. it did not involve most or all of the sub-Continent. Specifically, the southern and eastern areas around Bombay, Calcutta, and Madras did not participate.
The American Revolution took place before the (Napoleonic-inspired) Concert of Europe. European countries were rivals, meaning that the Americans could find European allies. The Indian Revolution took place at a time when the Europeans were moving toward being "fellow" colonialists, and amicably resolving disputes between themselves, in opposition to Asian and African nations.
Upvote:4
The experience of defeated English General Cornwallis in the American War of independence may have contributed to the near conquest of Mysore in 1792. The nemesis of Napoleon, the Duke of Wellington was another "hero" of the conquest. This was a breakthrough which eventually led to the conquest of the rest of India. After that, the military technology of the conquered Indian ruling houses was either non-existent or inferior to that of the East India Company.
The 1857 War of Indian Independence was not fought with formal methods. The weaponry and logistics were asymmetric. The British were quite ruthless in scorching the supply chain (especially food) in the villages that fed the Indian Sepoy Armies. Additionally, the militarily adept Sikhs were on the British side, while the poorly militarized irregulars called Purbias formed the bulk of Sepoy army. Though the leaders of the Sepoy army did have good planning and great bravery, they probably could not match the logistics of the British and were shocked by their scorched-earth tactics and ferocity .