Is there mutual significance in the year 1807, so far as abolition of the slave trade in Britain and the United States is concerned?
Upvote:5
Probably coincidental - the U.S. Constitution (Article 1, section 9) says:
The Migration or Importation of such Persons as any of the States now existing shall think proper to admit, shall not be prohibited by the Congress prior to the Year one thousand eight hundred and eight, but a Tax or duty may be imposed on such Importation, not exceeding ten dollars for each Person.
So Congress was prohibited by the Constitution from forbidding the importation of slaves prior to 1808, when the law you mentioned took effect (reference). While Wilberforce and others in Britain could easily have been aware of this, I doubt that it would have been a major influence on what happened in Britain.
I will also note that due to the Napoleonic Wars the US passed the Embargo Act of 1807, so political coordination between the two countries would not have been likely at the time.
Quoting Wikipedia:
The Embargo Act of 1807 was a general trade embargo on all foreign nations that was enacted by the United States Congress. As a successor or replacement law for the 1806 Non-importation Act and passed as the Napoleonic Wars continued, it represented an escalation of attempts to coerce Britain to stop any impressment of American sailors and to respect American sovereignty and neutrality but also attempted to pressure France and other nations in the pursuit of general diplomatic and economic leverage.
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