Did Charles IV of Spain legally change Spanish succession law in 1789?
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If the wikipedia article on the Pragmatic Sanction of 1830 is anything to go by, the answer would be sort of, in the sense that the Pragmatic Sanction itself simply ratified the Decree of 1789:
The proposal was accepted and formally adopted as Cortes’ petition to the king, but a corresponding law was not published until 1830, which triggered a dynastical conflict and a series of civil wars.
For context, it sometimes happens to have laws that get passed by Parliament but end up staying in legal limbo for months or years, because of procedural details -- they don't get ratified or something to that effect, etc. or because there is no executive guidance as to how they ought to get applied (not sure what the English term is for the French décret d'application [FR] but quite a few laws in France simply don't get applied because of this). The 27th Amendment to the US Constitution is a recent example of such. It was submitted by the 1st Congress to the states for ratification in 1789; it only became part of the United States Constitution in 1992.
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