Why didn't the Great Awakening spread to the Spanish Colonies?

Upvote:-1

1 On the Spanish american colonies the majority of population was native not Spaniards. Spaniards were the only educated people and much more They were aristocrats and were the ruling class. The American Spanish Viceroy was a captain general. I mean chief of military generals. In contrast, USA that were Europeans.

2 "The Catholicism also accepts liberalism" please, in history, we have great inventors but always weren't accepted by "conservative" politicians. Spain has Nobel prizes please.

3 the biggest colonization of Spanish America by Spaniards was in 1850-1950 before were a minority.

One Thing, the country that received more Spaniards wasn't Mexico, not Venezuela, not any Caribbean Islands, not Chile, not even USA. Was Argentina. 5,2 million Spaniards colonized America. 2 million chose Argentina.

The British empire consist in the colonization of the countries with its population. Spain, in contrast, only were in the head of the government. Were the elite after the conquest. In the final of XVIII. century spain was holding American colonies with 750.000 settlers while British like Canada or Australia were millions of settlers.Not to say that UK colonize the USA starting with 2 million of english settlers.

Spain has too much land controlled by a tiny loyal population. The spanish great colonization of his empire started in the middle of XIX.century. The hold puerto rico and Cuba more time due to we send 600.000 settlers. The same as Rif, Spanish Sahara and Spanish with less group of settlers but we sent them.

UK, in contrast, started his empire when its biggest growth. Just at the end XVII. century and early XVII.century (just after their civil war) but it was in XIX.century when started their great empire having the biggest and the best navy of europe and the pionner of Industrial Revolution.

Upvote:9

Perhaps this is facile to think an originally English, Protestant movement would have any relation to or impact on the Spanish Catholic Christians, but I wonder why not? The colonies of North and South America were still relatively young and only loosely united amongst themselves, and both were havens for religious communities and peoples seeking a new land. There were a few settlements of French Huguenot and Dutch Protestant settlements in South America as well, and so it was not entirely Catholic, and there were also conscientious Catholics in Spanish America like BartolomΓ© de las Casas (to use an early example), though I don't know if he was inclined toward preaching.

The real question is why should it?

  • Catholics and Protestants were just generations from burning each other at the stake
  • England and Spain were often at war or nearly so
  • It was the policy of colonial powers to restrict trade from a colony to other nation's colonies
  • The language barrier.
  • Catholics tend to make improvements within the Church system rather than through individual activism.

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