Does any evidence exist that suggests Hitler’s primary reason for declaring war on America was an attempt to draw Japan into his war with Russia?
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The decrypted "Ultra" evidence revealed in "Marching Orders" suggests just the opposite: that the Japanese were more likely to attack Soviet Siberia if the Germans were successful in the Soviet Union, e.g. at Moscow, Stalingrad and/or the Caucasus, than if they attacked the United States. Therefore, in theory, Hitler should have concentrated his arms production for a land war with the Soviet Union, rather than a naval war with the United States (and Britain).
Hitler attacked to the United States in order to "finish" destroying its navy. He rightly understood that the surprise attack at Pearl Harbor had left Japanese navy stronger. But he wrongly believed that the combination of the Japanese surface fleet and German submarines could administer the coup de grace to the American navy, and prevent America from "interfering" with either Germany or Japan in the eastern hemisphere.
What he did not count on was the American "rebuild" rate, which produced the equivalent of the Japanese and German navy every two years, and with plenty of capacity left over for air force and infantry weapons.
At the end of World War II, the single most important military force was the U.S. Pacific fleet. It impacted Japan, China, India, and today's "ASEAN" countries of Southeast Asia.
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