Did churches in American south have to be segregated by law?
score:6
My first reaction to this was, "Of course not- it'd be unconstitutional." However, a little further reading elided the fact that the establishment clause of the First Amendment was not incorporated against the states until 1947 (Everson v. Board of Education), so conceivably there could have been such a law on the state or local level before then.
That being said, while I'm far from a scholar of the period, I'm not familiar with any instance of such a law existing. In contrast, I've come across loads of mention of religious institutions self-segregating on many levels, whether within a congregation (as in your example), between congregations, or beyond. To this day the Seventh-Day Adventist church maintains separate conferences for white and black churches. (The conferences aren't named as such, but that is what they are.) And there's a huge body of theological justification for segregation that developed during this period, much of it derived from the theological justification for slavery.
So in this specific instance, the exact reasoning would depend on the denomination of Christianity, but it was very likely that this was a policy implemented voluntarily and not due to any government coercion.
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