Did c.1900 France have a law against foreign government resisting its conquest?
score:13
It was somewhat more complicated. According to Wikipedia France conquered Madagaskar in 1895 and sent
the royal family into exile on Réunion Island and to Algeria.
(Wikipedia, "Madagaskar", chapter French Colonization). After this an uprising started against the French rule. So this prince was apparently executed as a rebel.
Some more detail and pictures are here:
Executed Today, 1896: Rainandriamampandry and Prince Ratsimamanga
As I understand, after the conquest, the French rule became legitimate (from the French point of view), and France, as most states had legal rules for prosecution of rebels against the "legitimate rule".
As another similar example from the same epoch, Bolsheviks took power in the Russian empire by brute force, they arrested the government and dispersed the elected Constitutional Assembly by force. Since that day they prosecuted everyone who resisted their "legitimate power". (They eventually killed millions.)
Upvote:1
Madagascar was already at a minimum a protectorate of France since the former queen had signed a treaty ceding control of the island to the French. Subsequent to this, a rebellion started against the French. Ratsimamanga was accused of conspiring with the rebels--a capital offense.
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