Why does the Catholic Church hold Mary's virginity and the absence of brothers against the historians?
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According to @SLM the earliest belief was Mary/Joseph had children after Christ's birth. Origin says the source of ever-virgin (EV) and step-brother explanation is Infancy Gospel of James [where he presents himself as the half-brother of Jesus. ed O.P.]. Nothing about politics. Jerome couldn't bear the thought of a non-virgin Joseph, so invented the cousin theory. But in all that consideration, there's not a mention that he is aware of in a sibling conflict with Jerusalem or Rome. At least on the ever virgin doctrine.
It is therefore Jerome who would have created this belief to 383 by its significant influence during these three years spent in Rome, including his zeal to advocate asceticism. Even though this belief is already inscribed in the symbol of faith of St. Epiphanius, in 374. The reason he believed and created this belief can maybe be found in Against Helvidius and through is whole life. Indeed Jerome defends throughout his life the possibility for women to have a consecrated life according to Philippe Henne. That would have lead him to defend the virginity of women in this treatise. Indeed Helvidius denied the perpetual virginity of Mary, saying it did not matter, and defended that Jesus had brothers but using different sources than the Gospel of James. Jerome, in the words of the Bible, defended that the concept of brother is broader in the gospels.
This idea would then have spread, while the status of women in Rome at the time of Jerome gave way to a large emancipation for the wealthy women of Rome at the time; the appearance of consecrated women encouraged by Jerome is therefore a novelty that is frowned upon by Roman society. But supported by women of influences and devotees to Rome according to Philippe Henne, like Marcella, friend of Pope Damase, then other women of Rome like Paule to whom he teaches the Bible and exegesis.
The doctrine is then proclaimed as a "truth of Faith" at the Second Council of Constantinople in 553, which pronounces in the second anathema:
"The Word of God, incarnate in the holy and glorious Mother of God and always Virgin Mary, is born of her"
As an attempt to sum-up and conclude, the reason the Catholic Church hold Mary's virginity and the absence of brothers against the historians is due to ideas of Jerome. Okay, that's my interpretation from my historical research. I'm happy it raised controversial attention. Feel free to discuss it or propose another hypothesis ?
As an opening question some points still remains unclear like how the spreading of the doctrine in Jerome's social circles women of devout reached the whole Church. Maybe he has to search in the spreading of the Vulgate that Jerome wrote ? And another is what about the reason given nowadays as historical knowledge have improved? Why didn't this doctrine shifted with the time and scientific knowledge, like it shifted from geocentrism?
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