Should Genesis 1:2 be translated "And the earth became without form..."?
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The Hebrew verb "was" is in the Qal (indicative) perfect tense. "Became" is a fanciful translation. There's nothing wrong with fanciful translations and midrasch. But it's probably best to avoid basing tonnage of doctrine on midrasch or fancy.
There is an ambiguity in Hebrew about past or future actions, but that crops up when the IMperfect tense is used, not the perfect.
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Because the earth is no longer without form. When this was written, the earth was no longer without form.
The earth has form, as a testimony and to the Glory of God.
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The Father is not Elohim, Elohim stands for god's, holy children. The son of men is not God. Num 23:19 God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good? There is only one spirit and this is God. How many holy spirits see you.Eph 4:4. There is one Spirit,..... not Elohim but Eloah what stands for one holy spirit.
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