Why the wrongness of "Our Father" translation wasn't spotted earlier?
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The Our Father has not been wrongly translated.
It is Catholic dogma of the highest degree (de fide) that there are no errors in Holy Scripture, and the 4th Session of the Council of Trent defined the dogma that St. Jerome's Vulgate translation—which says in both Mt. 6:13 and Lk. 11:4: "et ne nos inducas in tentationem" ("lead us not into temptation")—is "free from any error whatsoever in matters of faith and morals," as Pope Pius XII later summarized Trent's dogma.
Read St. Thomas Aquinas's Expositio in orationem dominicam a. 6 for an explanation of "and lead us not into temptation," specifically:
But does God lead one to evil, that he should pray: "Lead us not into temptation"? I reply that God is said to lead a person into evil by permitting him to the extent that, because of his many sins, He withdraws His grace from man, and as a result of this withdrawal man does fall into sin.
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" Lead us not into temptation" is not an isolated prayer , but is a prelude to the prayer ".. but deliver us from the evil one". Modern translators did the mistake of substituting " evil" for " evil one", the former having a very general implication and the latter specifically referring to the Devil. In fact, old form of the prayer contained the words " evil one" . For instance, old form of the Lord's Prayer in my native language Malayalam ( of southern India ) which had been directly translated from Syrian language, had the words corresponding to " the evil spirit"!
Once you read the prayer in totality, it makes absolute sense.
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Source: stackoverflow.com
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