Did different Jews have different canons?
Upvote:0
Of course they did, there are many quotations in many books in the OT that are no longer available or lost in time.
For some strange reason for example Joshua quotes another book as proof of his story rather than simply saying he was there.
We have the same situation with the gospels.... why the apostle Matthew would copy half of the gospel of Mark, when he was actually there... is very strange.
Upvote:4
This question is fully answered by simply consulting Wikipedia - Hebrew Bible
The Hebrew Bible or Tanakh[a] (/tɑːˈnɑːx/;1 Hebrew: תָּנָ״ךְ Tānāḵh), also known in Hebrew as Miqra (/miːˈkrɑː/;1 Hebrew: מִקְרָא Mīqrā), is the canonical collection of Hebrew scriptures, including the Torah, the Nevi'im, and the Ketuvim. Different branches of Judaism and Samaritanism have maintained different versions of the canon, including the 3rd-century Septuagint text used by Second-Temple Judaism, the Syriac language Peshitta, the Samaritan Torah, the Dead Sea Scrolls, and most recently the 10th century medieval Masoretic text created by the Masoretes currently used in modern Rabbinic Judaism. The terms "Hebrew Bible" or "Hebrew Canon" are frequently confused with the Masoretic text, however, this is a medieval version and one of several texts considered authoritative by different types of Judaism throughout history.[2] The modern Masoretic text is mostly in Biblical Hebrew, with a few passages in Biblical Aramaic (in the books of Daniel and Ezra, and the verse Jeremiah 10:11).[3]
I do not need to quote the entire text, the rest is all self-explanatory.
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