Is suffering always present?

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I think that the second noble truth says that suffering co-arises with craving -- and the third noble truth says that cessation (of craving and suffering) happens.

It's being called "pervasive", I think, comes from the tilakkhaṇa -- i.e.:

  • sabbe saṅkhārā aniccā — "all saṅkhāras (conditioned things) are impermanent"
  • sabbe saṅkhārā dukkhā — "all saṅkhāras are unsatisfactory"
  • sabbe dhammā anattā — "all dharmas (conditioned or unconditioned things) are not self"

Note that it's "sabbe saṅkhārā" i.e. "all conditioned things" -- not "all dhammas" -- that are unsatsifactory.

Also note that "dukkhā" there is translated "unsatisfactory" not "suffering" -- i.e. the things themselves are unsatisfactory and impermanent.

Whereas "suffering" (with is another translation of "dukkhā", a context in which "dukkhā" is used) might be slightly different -- i.e. an aspect of consciousness which co-arises with craving and attachment -- i.e. craving and attaching to sankharas which are unsatisfactory and impermanent.

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This makes sense to me intuitively How do the different schools, i.e. TNH as well as those opposing, justify their position? What do they use as their reference?

There's no contradiction between what TNH said versus any other school 'cuz really whenever you ask: "Is suffering always present", it's normally assumed that the sentence meant: "Is suffering always present relative to whose frame of reference"?, not some ontological inquiry into the existence of suffering in and of itself. Because of that, TNH's explanation was based on the former context and it is indeed very true, ie. for a Buddha or His arahant disciples, suffering is not present from their frame of reference. It obviously is from a run-of-the-mill's frame of reference.

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