Why did countries declare exclusive economic zones of up to 200 nautical miles?

Upvote:4

Read about the Tragedy of the Commons. It is a well understood economic observation that any resource left unmanaged will tend to be over exploited, as it is in the individual self-interest to do so. When combined with the basic observation, in life as well as child-rearing, that one should never make idle threats, the question you ask really should be turned on its head.

Given the imperative to attempt management of resources, to protect their economic value, why did it take so long for EEZ's to expand to the (new) limit to which they could reasonably enforced?

Upvote:5

The ideas behind the EEZ are put forward quite well in this proclamation by President Harry S Truman in 1947

Formally: Proclamation 2667 - Policy of the United States With Respect to the Natural Resources of the Subsoil and Sea Bed of the Continental Shelf

"Having concern for the urgency of conserving and prudently utilizing its natural resources, the Government of the United States regards the natural resources of the subsoil and sea bed of the continental shelf beneath the high seas but contiguous to the coasts of the United States as appertaining to the United States, subject to its jurisdiction and control."

The apparent reasons stated - the conservation and prudent use of natural resources.

EDIT:

Since this relates to resources of the subsoil and sea bed of the continental shelf, it is reasonable to assume that one such resource could be oil.

HT to @T.E.D. for pointing this out!

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@LennartRegebro @Kobunite Correct! The proclamation by Truman does not specify any particular resource, which also means it does not exclude any particular resource. More importantly, the proclamation asserts the right of the US to conserve/use some areas. This assertion may have been important for Chile/Peru when they made their claims.

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