Why was North and South America less developed than other parts of the world?
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From the context of your question I take it that when you say "Developed" you don't mean technologically developed but rather that said civilization "obtained a geographically large empire."
So to answer the question why didn't pre-columbian Americas have as many large empires,
A) The historic records for pre-columbain Americas is almost non-existent compared to the old world. So in fact there may (and in my opinion likely were) just as many large empires, we just don't have any records of them.
B) A lack of faster and easier than walking travel would have limited troop movement, supply lines and exploration. All of which are important for the growth of an empire.
C) Empires by very definition exist to capture new wealth and bring it back to the capital. It could have simply been that any Nations that did arise simply didn't see any opportunities to conquer that wealth. For example the Incas did not value gold and silver as much as they did fine cloth. source wikipedia If you don't see anything nearby that you think is worth conquering then why make the effort.
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Source: stackoverflow.com
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