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There are no medieval historic references to "Semites". The word did not exist until the late 18th Century. It was coined by Historian August Ludwig von SchlΓΆzer to have a useful word to describe that set of apparently related languages.
The choice of name was derived from Shem, one of the three sons of Noah in the genealogical accounts of the biblical Book of Genesis,[14] or more precisely from the Koine Greek rendering of the name, S?Β΅ (Sem). Eichhorn is credited with popularising the term ...
It was known in the middle ages that the languages were similar. It appears that when a collective word for the languages was needed, they were called "Oriental". However, since that's just a geographic term, it has obvious drawbacks.
I highly doubt you'll find many Spanish medieval references to Jews as "Orientals".
Upvote:2
To take a specific example, in Spain, there must have been many families who were originally Muslim, and who probably still spoke Arabic. If a preacher condemned Jews, wouldn't it be natural to include Muslims as well?
Focusing on this specific point : No. One major difference - Jews explicitly reject the person who Christians worship. Muslims see him as a prophet. The implications of this are obvious.