What was the historical prevalance of inherited chattel slavery?
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how common was chattel slavery worldwide before the trans-Atlantic slave trade?
Trans-Atlantic slave trade never amounted to more than a third of African slave trade. Most of the African slaves were bought by the Muslims in the Middle East, who immediately castrated all males (which is why there are few Africans there these days).
Slavery is an ancient universal institution, which appeared independently in all cultures and societies which reached a certain level of productivity per capita: in subsistence societies (e.g., Yanomami) male POW are worthless because they cannot produce more than they eat and have to be guarded (females, whose capture is the purpose of warfare, do not have to be guarded after they are raped and impregnated). However, after agriculture is invented, POW can be enslaved because now they produce more than they consume, and this is what we do observe, historically. For more details, see Das Kapital.
More:
- History of slavery
- Arab slave trade
- Barbary slave trade
- Janissaries
- What was the scale of African slavery in the Middle East?
- Is it true that Arab owners usually castrated African male slaves?
- What effect, if any, did Islam have on slavery?
- Was the Arabic slave trade more humane than the Western one?
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Source: stackoverflow.com
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