Why does RetsΓΆ claim that only members/clients of Arabian tribes were considered "real Muslims" in the Umayyad Caliphate before 750?

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I think the main evidence he used is regarding "algezia" which is taxes paid by non-Muslims as per islamic law "shariaa" and during Ummayad time they keep taking this tax from non-Arabs in spite of their converting to Islam.

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