score:5
It seems unlikely. Especially with the commoners, it's hard to know for sure because "the rebels do not represent themselves for the written record." (source) I don't see any evidence that English peasants were aware of events on the continent in any way at all, nor that the elites followed this sort of thing.
However, this is not to say that the two revolts were totally unconnected. In the mid-to-late 14th century, feudalism was in crisis and peasant revolts were widespread across late medieval Europe. The examples you ask about are just two of many, and may have had a number of underlying causes in common---famine, plague and war.