Upvote:1
The words "all Gods of the Gentiles are demons" is a quote from Scripture;
For all the gods of the heathens are devils, but the Lord made the heavens (Ps. 96:5 LXX/Vul).
It's most likely meaning in Scripture and here is that whereas the heathens think they worship gods, they serve demons in actual fact, either literal individual demons corresponding to the respective false idols/gods, or simply in the fact that they offer sacrifice to not-God (their fictional gods), and take perverted pleasure in such, or can even gain spiritual authority over such who dabble in such.
I think it would first have to be demonstrated (no pun intended) that a change in the perennial view of false gods had taken place in the 1500s (which from this quote alone is not evident), rather than setting about to produce an explicit interpretation of "the gods of Gentiles are devils" by someone in the 1500s wherein they differed therefrom.
Traditionally, the activity of witches etc. qua (as being, or if) actually supernatural, is obviously to be attributed to devils, since it is not God's doing. Does this mean all false gods correspond to an individual fallen angel (devil)? I don't think so. However, the early Church Fathers certainly believed that demons were at least the inspiration for the false religions of pagans, especially those in which there are things which seem to plagiarize the Old Testament, or even imitate something specifically Christian (St. Justin Martyr, a mid-second century Christian, would say that the mysteries of Mithras were plagiarized from the Christian sacrament of the Eucharist):
[The sacrament of the Eucharist] which the wicked devils have imitated in the mysteries of Mithras, commanding the same thing to be done. For, that bread and a cup of water are placed with certain incantations in the mystic rites of one who is being initiated, you either know or can learn.
Much to the gratification of liberals and anti-Christians who consider Christianity 'just another pagan religion.'