How do believers in post-mortal consciousness respond to objections by the Jewish Encyclopedia article on the immortality of the soul?

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How do believers in post-mortal consciousness respond to this article?

First, by comparing it to this article from JewishEncyclopedia, which disagrees. We'll call the article cited in the OP "article A", and the article in my link "article B". Article B is clear that there is communion among the dead.

  • Article A was written by Kaufmann Kohler, a scholar who was sufficiently radical that he was banned from preaching in Germany (source)
  • Article B was written by his brother-in-law, Emil G. Hirsch (I wonder what dinner table conversations were like for them)

Second, by pointing out several of the presuppositions upon which Article A's case rests:

  • Article A requires that Psalm 16 was not written by David, but was many years later falsely attributed/forged
  • Article A requires that the book of Isaiah was not written by Isaiah the son of Amoz (as Isaiah 1:1 suggests), and must therefore appeal to arguments for Deutero & Trito Isaiah (note that the most common argument for Isaiah being a compilation of multiple authors over multiple centuries is the question-begging assumption that nobody could have made predictions about King Cyrus by name in advance). For arguments against forgery/pseudepigraphy in Isaiah, see Isaiah: Prophet, Seer, and Poet by Victor Ludlow, Isaiah: A Logion Press Commentary by Stanley Horton, and a brief Occam's razor argument I wrote here.

Article A essentially assumes all Old Testament evidence dis-favorable to its preferred conclusion is forgery/pseudepigraphy. The article's position crumbles quickly if these premises are discarded.

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Is it true that post-mortal consciousness is nowhere expressly taught in Holy Scripture?

When Kohler says "Holy Scripture" he means what ancient Jews called the Tanakh, and what Christians call the Old Testament.

I dispute the claim that post-mortal consciousness is absent from the Old Testament (e.g. Isaiah 9:2, Isaiah 14:9-11, Isaiah 24:22), but I do acknowledge that the concept is more clearly taught in the New Testament (e.g. Luke 16, 1 Peter 3 & 4) than in the Old.

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Is it true that the belief in post-mortal consciousness came to the Jews from contact with Greek thought and chiefly through the philosophy of Plato?

This is a third cause fallacy. That both Greek & Jewish writers expressed opinions in favor of post-mortal consciousness does not mean the Jews got the idea from the Greeks any more than it means the Greeks got the idea from the Jews, or that they both got it from another, earlier source.

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