Should Mark 16:9-20 be in the Bible?
Upvote:0
Another biblical passage applicable to the Mark 16 verses on poison is in 1Tim 4:4-5. In correcting those who spout "doctrines of demons" that include abstaining from certain foods, the apostle says that "every creature of God is good, and nothing is to be rejected, if it is received with thanksgiving, 5 For it is sanctified through the word of God and prayer." Many Christians obsess over eating only certain kinds of foods, thinking that is the key to a long and healthy life (even though Eph 6:1-3 says the key to longevity is something else). Looking for unhealthy foods to eat or poisons to drink would be "tempting God," which Jesus reminds us we must not do (Mat 4:7); but inadvertent ingestion of bad things or inadvertent stepping on serpents is not something we have to worry about, since God promises to protect us. But extracting a verse like the ones in Luke and Mark to develop an ecclesiastical practice of snake handling and poison drinking will surely end in sorrow, because to do such a thing is to tempt the Lord thy God.
Upvote:4
The danger with this is that there may be teachings in there that don't correspond with other parts of the New Testament. If there are new doctrines introduced in text that is not found in all versions of the original manuscripts, then we have to be careful about completely basing our faith off of these doctrines.
In regard to this specific passage, there's nothing in there that isn't found in any other place in the bible. Truly, everything included there is echoed in other passages.
So, even if we can't be sure of its authenticity, we can be sure of its authority.
Upvote:7
The Greek vocabulary and grammar of the so-called longer ending of Mark is subtly different from the part that concludes "for they were afraid." And it is indeed missing from some of the most ancient sources.
We can speculate on why. Without either of the two disputed endings ("shorter" or "longer") the Gospel concludes with these words:
So they went out and fled from the tomb, for terror and amazement had seized them; and they said nothing to anyone, for they were afraid.
Gulp. That's it? Is it possible that a scribe sometime in history really wanted an ending with a more exhortatory flavor?
A definitive answer to your first question is difficult, but the evidence points to "yes, it's a later ending." As to your second question, "should it be in the Bible?" with respect that's above your pay grade and mine. It is in the Bible.
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