How can Jesus saw Nathanael in John1:48 when he was not at that place?

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John 1:48 does not imply bilocation any more than any other prophet's visions indicate bilocation. For example:

Daniel had dreams/visions about events at the Ulai canal (Dan 8)
Ezekiel had visions about heaven and the exiles in Jerusalem
John saw things about heaven as well
Paul records a vision about the third heaven (2 Cor 12:1-6)
Samuel records many events about that he saw, eg, about Saul, 1 Sam 10:1-9.

There are many more examples. None of these is any evidence of bilocation - merely a vision given by God without any need for bilocation.

Would not supernatural "insight" by Jesus be a more natural explanation of John 1:48 than mystical, un-evidenced bilocation?

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Source: stackoverflow.com

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