God the Father's possession of a body of flesh and bones

Upvote:0

How could the Creator of the universe have a body of flesh and bones which are products of that universe? Only by later humbling himself into that form and taking on the nature of the creation. The OT never states that God the Father did this, and the NT quite consistently reaffirms that only Jesus has ever done this, and that the Father is invisible eternal spirit only.

Upvote:2

The OT is very clear that any static image or representation of the Divine is a very bad thing. The first two commandments are prohibitions of idolatry and the primary charge of the Prophets is against the same. To ascribe flesh and image to God would be heretical to the Jewish writers and authors of the books. As such, using a "primary sense to the primary recipient" hermeneutic would completely fail. Idolatry was so antithetical to the Jewish understanding would have made giving God any flesh or image heretical to unthinkable.

That said (and I say this as a non-Mormon), the primary problem and setting in which Joseph Smith either wrote or was called in (depending on your belief), was not one in which idolatry was an issue. As such, it is difficult to apply a Jewish understanding to a Mormon prophet. Would a Jew think this silly? Sure. But then again, the idea that God would ever take on flesh even temporarily as the Messiah is equally repugnant, so as an argument there is not much to gain.

Upvote:4

Your question is worded a little tricky, but I think you're saying: John 4:24 says that God is a spirit, and you are saying that Mormons respond by saying that it only refers to one part of God (one part is the spirit and the other part is the body), since Mormons believe God has a body. Then you cite 1 Peter as an example.

Not to throw your example a little bit, but Mormons believe that

15 ... the spirit and the body are the soul of man.(Doctrine and Covenants 88:15)

So, to answer your question:

How do / Do Mormons reconcile God the Father's omnipresence with his corporeal / fleshy form?

Yes, Mormon doctrine does reconcile it, and it's quite simple:

1 And verily, verily, I say unto you that I have aother sheep, which are not of this land, neither of the land of Jerusalem, neither in any parts of that land round about whither I have been to minister.

2 For they of whom I speak are they who have not as yet heard my voice; neither have I at any time manifested myself unto them.

3 But I have received a commandment of the Father that I shall go unto them, and that they shall hear my voice, and shall be numbered among my sheep, that there may be one fold and one shepherd; therefore I go to show myself unto them.

4 And I command you that ye shall write these sayings after I am gone ...

  • Since the Holy Ghost is both a spirit (no body) and also a god, His influence can be felt anywhere at once. The Holy Ghost is a separate, distinct being from God Himself, but is nonetheless a member of the godhead. In this sense, perhaps, God is "omnipresent."

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