Why is the burial of Jesus in a rich man's tomb not mentioned as fulfillment of OT prophesy?
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I have examined Isaiah 53:9 in Hebrew, hoping to find some useful clue.
Here is the critical part of the Hebrew text, followed by a literal English translation (inevitably clumsy). The Hebrew is to be read from right to left, divided in relevant phrases, and the corresponding English phrases are (again from right to left) in the line below:
וַיִּתֵּ֤ן______________ אֶת־רְשָׁעִים֙ __________ קִבְר֔וֹ___________ וְאֶת־עָשִׁ֖יר___________ בְּמֹתָ֑יו
in his death__but/and with the rich__his grave __with the wicked__And gave [they]
If there is any hope of understanding, it is likely to be in the comparison between the two key words:
- רְשָׁעִים֙ which is the masculine plural of the adjective רָשְׁע (Strongs H7563 - rasha, "wicked")
- עָשִׁ֖יר which is the masculine singular of the same adjective עָשִׁיר (Strong's H6223 - ashir, "rich")
Some scholars have noticed that עָשִׁיר (apart from the yod י) is specular of רָשְׁע, and tried to establish a parallelism between the two adjectives, without any convincing suggestion.
A mysterious (no) conclusion
If Isaiah 53:9 is indeed prophetically referred to Jesus, and his being buried by the rich secret disciple Joseph of Arimathea, then it is a real mystery why Matthew, in particular, always in search of the fulfillment in Jesus of OT prophecies, has not noticed and quoted it.
Edit to add (June 21, 2021 - 23:22 CET)
While there are several non-Catholic comments on the Burial of Jesus in Joseph of Arimathea's tomb as fulfillment of Isaiah 53:9, I could not find any Catholic source.
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