Was the weeping of Jesus in Jn 11:35 an integral part of the divine scheme of things?

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When one is a father with a daughter, one can understand weeping when knowing everything is alright, but weeping because one's daughter is hurting, even if she doesn't understand. That's why Jesus feeling the hurt of Mary weeped.

The divine scheme of things is that Jesus' weeping shows that God feels our every pain and hurts with us. A side note is some times we need to wait in our suffering for God's purpose to be fulfilled. In Martha and Mary's case, Jesus waited longer than three days because the Jews thought it impossible to bring a person back to life after three days. No one had ever done this before. Jesus showed he is "the resurrection and the life."

Here is a full discussion to a similar question: https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/1635/in-john-1135-how-and-why-did-jesus-weep/31587#31587

Perry Webb 536

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📝 Was the weeping of Jesus in Jn 11:35 an integral part of the divine scheme of things?
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Was the weeping of Jesus in Jn 11:35 an integral part of the divine scheme of things?

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