Can the doctrine of Cessationism be logically deduced from Scripture via deductive reasoning?
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No. The main passage people use to argue for cessationism is 1 Corinthians 13:8-10.
8 Love never fails. But where there are prophecies, they will cease; where there are tongues, they will be stilled; where there is knowledge, it will pass away. 9 For we know in part and we prophesy in part, 10 but when completeness comes, what is in part disappears.
This is clearly referring to a different era beyond the apostolic one and even the current one. If you say the gifts no longer exist, you also have to say that knowledge no longer exists. Those who argue for cessationism say that the gifts ceased after the apostolic age. Since the NT was written by and about the apostles, you can't expect to find support for cessationism there. You would have to agree that the Bible misleads people into thinking that God will continue to show his power through his people until the harvest of evangelism on earth is completed.
Truly, truly, I say to you, whoever believes in me will also do the works that I do; and greater works than these will he do, because I am going to the Father. John 14:12
You will also have to deny biblical prophecy which referred to the last days as quoted by Peter for example in Acts 2:17.
“‘And in the last days it shall be, God declares, that I will pour out my Spirit on all flesh, and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams;
So even if someone could come up with some "logical deduction" regarding cessationism, it would be vain human reasoning in contradiction to scripture.
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Source: stackoverflow.com
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