Usage of Hades in the New Testament

According to Justin Martyr, the demons imitated the things written in the Bible and produced similar stories to deceive men.

And when they heard it said by the other prophet Isaiah, that He should be born of a virgin, and by His own means ascend into heaven, they pretended that Perseus was spoken of. And when they knew what was said, as has been cited above, in the prophecies written aforetime, "Strong as a giant to run his course," they said that Hercules was strong, and had journeyed over the whole earth. And when, again, they learned that it had been foretold that He should heal every sickness, and raise the dead, they produced Æsculapius. (The First Apology 54)

Many concepts in Greek Mythology is very similar to the Bible. The New Testament writers were also using the same name used in the Greek Mythology for Hades. Probably because it was easier to use this existing name instead of giving it a new name that no one knows. Since they also have similar meaning and concept behind them, it probably was a better option to use the same name. See how similar is the concept of Hades in Christianity and Greek Mythology.

Hades in Greek Mythology:

The Greek underworld, in mythology, was a place where souls went after death and was the Greek idea of afterlife. At the moment of death the soul was separated from the corpse, taking on the shape of the former person, and was transported to the entrance of Hades.

Hades in the New Testament:

He foresaw and spoke about the resurrection of the Christ, that he was not abandoned to Hades, nor did his flesh see corruption. (Acts 2:31, ESV)

And the sea gave up the dead who were in it, Death and Hades gave up the dead who were in them, and they were judged, each one of them, according to what they had done. (Revelation 20:13, ESV)

The time came when the beggar died and the angels carried him to Abraham's side. The rich man also died and was buried. In Hades, where he was in torment, he looked up and saw Abraham far away, with Lazarus by his side. (Luke 16:22-23, NIV)

@H3br3wHamm3r81 -- I agree completely with you.

It is crucial that people be able to have some sort of clue what something means in order for them to be able to appreciate or "believe" it.

I would also like to add:

To have just imported Jewish ideas and terminology without doing "cultural translation" would have been futile, especially when it was hoped that these Hebrew ideas could be introduced and explained to Goyiim/Gentiles who had no background in the Hebrew faith.

I had a professor in University who liked to point out that the Hebrew and Roman/Greek ways of looking at the world were pretty different in their most basic aspects.

Greek/Roman Worldview:

• materialistic
• literalist
• simplistic/reductionistic
• pessimistic, seeing a world increasing in disorder

Hebrew/Jewish Worldview:

• very spiritual
• metaphor, similie, and analogy are important
• aiming towards a more mystical or connected experience
• optimistic and looking towards a messianic future

Given these differences, you just couldn't import words wholesale and expect anyone to get them. You can import ideas and put them into a new context -- take them from what the polytheists know and place those within the context of Judaism and Christianity.

Simply using the word does not make it "pagan" or "non-Christian" if the meaning is amended to contain something more than or different from that intended by the pagan usage.

Resources:

A good summary of the difference between Jewish and Greek thought can be found here: http://philosophycourse.info/hebwislitsite/gk-hebwvs.html

I suppose the authors of the Greek New Testament scriptures could have simply transliterated the Hebrew word שְׁאוֹל into Greek, perhaps as Σεολ. But, even if they had done that, Greeks wouldn't have had the faintest idea what this so-called "Σεολ" was, unless they first spent countless hours studying its equivalent in Hebrew, i.e. שְׁאוֹל (remember, early cultures didn't have the luxuries that we do, including electricity and online lexicons; even the possession of scrolls was a luxury of the wealthy).

The Greeks already had a name for the underworld, which they called ᾅδης. Recognizing this, the authors of the Septuagint were the first to translate the Hebrew word שְׁאוֹל into Greek by the word ᾅδης circa 250 B.C. Since the authors of the New Testament were familiar with the Septuagint (often quoting from it or its Greek prototype), and the "seventy" (or seventy-two, depending on which tradition you accept) had incorporated ᾅδης into the LXX for their translation of שְׁאוֹל, the authors of the Greek New Testament probably decided it was easier to simply continue using ᾅδης rather than re-invent the wheel.

As for ᾅδης being the name of a Greek god, I'm sure the authors were aware of that, but I assume they still incorporated it because they believed the Greeks' notions of ᾅδης (as the underworld) weren't irreconcilable with the Jews' notions of שְׁאוֹל.

That brings up another point: we could also ask why the authors chose the word οὐρανός, which we translate into English as "heaven," when it too was the name of a Greek god.