Why at Judges 2:1 does it say the angel of the Lord would never break his covenant he swore to the fathers, Abraham, Isaac and Jacob?
Upvote:0
There are different opinions about the details of this within Christianity.
Some say that the Angel of the Lord is in fact God himself, or specifically God the Son. Others say the Angel of the Lord is one who speaks for the Lord, and so when he says "I" he means the Lord. This would be considered a normal way of speaking in that day when a king sends a messenger to announce his decrees.
For more information see this page describing the different views.
For practical purposes it makes little difference here. The "I" in the passage refers to the Lord in either case, and the Lord has in fact made and not broken his covenant with Abraham.
Upvote:0
The background is Israel rejected God as her Husband and as her King and “went about as harlots after other gods and worshipped them” (2:17). In dealing with this situation, God as the Angel of Jehovah, came in to admonish the children of Israel (vv. 1-5). So it is an admonition.
First, He reminded them of Jehovah’s delivering them out from Egypt and His bringing them into the promised land (v. 1a). Second, He reminded them of Jehovah’s faithfulness in keeping His promise to them (v. 1b). Third, He reminded them of Jehovah’s charge to them that they should not make a covenant with the inhabitants of Canaan and that they should tear down their altars (v. 2a).
Upvote:4
The angel of the Lord in Judges 2:1 speaks as Deity. Not as a representative of Deity but speaks as Deity, personally.
The conclusion of what is laid out, competently, in the above question can only, logically, be that the 'messenger of the Lord' (the word is malak in Hebrew) is the same 'messenger of the Lord' referred to in, for example, Malachi 3:1, which states that 'the Lord whom ye seek' is the 'messenger of the covenant' and this 'messenger', says God, is preceded by another 'messenger' whom 'I will send' and he shall 'prepare the way before me'.
Jesus quotes this and, if it is indeed the case that he is quoting the Septuagint, then he changes one letter in the Greek and says (instead of prepare the way before me ) says :
Behold, I send my messenger before thy face [Matthew 11:10 KJV]
Which Mark, in the opening of his gospel account repeats :
Behold, I send my messenger before thy face [Mark 1:2 KJV]
Clearly the messenger before my face (which is a prophecy of John the Baptist in Malachi) is further revealed to be the messenger before thy face, by Jesus adjusting the text.
Thus the messenger of the covenant (the Lord himself) is preceded (before my face in Hebrew but before thy face in Greek).
Thus Jesus Christ, being the messenger of the covenant (preceded before his face by John the baptist) is the Lord himself (preceded before my face, saith the Lord).
The logical conclusion is that the face of Jesus Christ is the face of the Lord.
And this 'messenger of the covenant' (the Lord himself) is also the 'messenger' who came up from Gilgad in Judges 2;1.
What was revealed in careful wording in the Hebrew scriptures - prior to the manifestation of God in flesh - is now revealed plainly in the Greek scriptures, now that Jesus Christ is come and now that he reveals the Father.
He who said 'Before Abraham was, I am (strictly speaking it is 'I, I am' ego eimi) is revealed to be the angel of the Lord seen at the burning bush, seen by Manoah and his wife, seen at Bochim, and prophesied of by Malachi.
Seen in the burning furnace by the Gentile King who witnessed a likeness of 'son of deity', seen by Jacob when he wrestled till the break of day.
Seen by faith by those who have faith to see him.
But hidden from view if the eyes are blinded.
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