Upvote:-1
Indirectly we may draw some inferences
“He brought them forth also with silver and gold: and there was not one feeble person among their tribes.” Psalms 105:37
There being not even one feeble or one who stumbled among an assembly of 6 or 7 figure is highly unlikely. Especially since they were laborers, and it would not be statistically improbable that someone might have fallen during the construction and making of bricks and paralyzed their legs in the course of years leading up to the great exodus.
It appears that all those who ate of the lamb received supernatural healing such that none would stumble or be feeble on this trek to Canaan.
Is it therefore possible that someone had a genetic condition that caused them to stumble requiring healing for this passage to hold true?
“But when Jesus knew it, he withdrew himself from thence: and great multitudes followed him, and he healed them all;” Matthew 12:15
If Jesus healed them ALL, that means all. That means without exception whether they were aware of the cause or not, whether they understood it was genetically related or otherwise, all were healed.
“Then when Jesus came, he found that he had lain in the grave four days already.” John 11:17
Four days in decomposition, putrefaction means cells, a large percentage of cells are denatured. All these had to be restored which is precisely what would have to happen with a person suffering from trisomy for example
“And great crowds came to him, bringing with them the lame χωλους , the blind, the crippled κυλλους , the mute, and many others, and they put them at his feet, and he healed them,” Matthew 15:30
The first Greek word χωλους translated lame means maimed, which is a physical injury especially loss of limb. Similar for the second Greek word. Inference being, that Jesus was required to make limbs grow, appear from nothing. If He can make something out of nothing, surely He can remove an extra chromosome or correct a genetic mutation. Especially if the phenotype expression to be corrected requires genetic manipulation.
“And there was a woman who had had a discharge of blood for twelve years,” Mark 5:25
Haemophilia is an x-linked genetic condition. Not concluding this is what this woman had but if she did, in order for her to be healed here genetic disorder had to be resolved or the pathway blocked somehow.
In conclusion while the text does not clearly state genetic disorders, it speaks of all being healed, it describes, restoration of putrefied cells and even missing limbs. It also speaks of corrections, such as correction of vision, if the eyes can be corrected, then the genes must also be correctable.
Upvote:4
The Bible was written down about two thousand years ago, when nothing was known about "Chromosome defects". So the Bible writers didn't record whether any of the people Jesus healed had chromosome defects. Nor did they give us enough information to work our for ourselves if they had them.
what is the explanation for why this type of handicap God doesn't choose to heal?
We don't know that he doesn't. If he can raise someone from the dead, he is certainly capable of healing a chromosome defect. Just because it wasn't recorded that Jesus did that in his time on earth doesn't mean he didn't do it, or hasn't done it since.