If the kingdom of God is invisible, in heaven, how can seeing Jesus be key to seeing it as he is also invisible, in heaven?
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Paradox of Isaiah: seeing vs. perceiving The answer for the verses in John is simply the commission of Isaiah. Its the key theme that is driving this narrative in John for the purpose of the question, this being the paradox between physical versus spiritual sight described in Isaiah 6:9 and cited in John 12:40:
9 He said, “Go and tell this people: “‘Be ever hearing, but never understanding; be ever seeing, but never perceiving.’10 Make the heart of this people calloused; make their ears dull and close their eyes. Otherwise they might see with their eyes, hear with their ears, understand with their hearts, and turn and be healed.”
Again, John cites this in 12:40 and continues,
41 Isaiah said this because he saw Jesus’ glory and spoke about him.
Those at the time of Jesus could physically see Jesus standing before them but refuse to recognise him spiritually, "ever seeing but never perceiving" (Isaiah 6:9). It's the judgement of Isaiah proclaiming the salvation (heaven) of God to the ever seeing which is rejected and therefore never perceiving.
It's that simple and is the heart of John's gospel.
John is very hard hitting in this message, particularly John 9:5-30 where the man born blind could see Jesus, but the Pharisees born sighted refused. I have gone on to explain each verse in the context of Isaiah, which together with light/dark its theme and interplays across the entire Gospel of John. However, on reflection for simplicity the above answer IMO suffices to explain physical sight versus spiritual sight and salvation "turn and be healed".
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