Has Numbers 19:11-12 been considered when discussing why Jesus rose on the third day?
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I generally associate his instruction to Mary Magdalene as the fulfillment of that written indirectly concerning him, 'Touch not mine anointed, do my prophets no harm'(1 Chr. 16:22, also in the Psalms). I have also associated Numbers 19's 'third day' with Jesus' resurrection, but only in terms of that written in 19:12b, that such a one needed to be purified with the ashes of the red heifer on the third day in order to be cleansed. As far as declaring him unclean for entering his former body, it would seem not the case, for otherwise he would have been made 'unclean' by both entering the 'tent' of the deceased, as well touching the dead in resurrecting them, lepers as well(Mark 1:40-42), who, by his doctrine(John 11:25), I would say was not made unclean thereby.
Upvote:1
I was wondering about that very thing myself just the other day, and now you have referenced it for me. When Jesus came to John to be baptized, as we know, John was incredulous and said "Lord! you come to baptized by me?!"
And Jesus said "it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness" (Matthew 3:15).
The Good News Bible says it like this, "in this way we shall do all that God requires". Many other versions saying "it becomes us to fulfill all righteousness".
Also to consider, is how His body "did not see corruption" as stated in Psalm 16:10 and quoted by both Peter, and later Paul, in the book of Acts.
Since His body did not see corruption, and doubly, being risen (but not yet ascended) His body was wholly new and only of life, therefor not 'unclean'. But God being a God of beauty through order, how logical to rise on the third day in the new glorified body, as a sort of cleansing (baptism) from the old one.
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