Why was St. Joseph given instructions in dreams? (Roman Catholic perspective)

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I am the Eastern Orthodox. But as both we and Catholics honor John Chrysostom as Saint and Doctor of the Church, I think his answer to the original question could be considered as the both Eastern Orthodox and Catholic view:

And why not openly, as to the shepherds, and to Zacharias, and to the Virgin? The man was exceedingly full of faith, and needed not this vision. Whereas the Virgin, as having declared to her very exceeding good tidings, greater than to Zacharias, and this before the event, needed also a marvellous vision; and the shepherds, as being by disposition rather dull and clownish. But this man, after the conception, and wide the interval between the two men; wherefore neither was there need of rebuke.

http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/200104.htm

Sorry for the bad English.

Роман Шапиро 76

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Source: stackoverflow.com

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Why was St. Joseph given instructions in dreams? (Roman Catholic perspective)

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