In the 1920's, why did the German government fire working women if their husband was employed?
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Accepted answer
The thought processes was that each employed woman was taking that job away from an unemployed man. With unemployment rampant, this was the time leading into the depression in the US, and economic collapse in Germany(not sure where your question is referencing in particular), it seemed more important to lower the overall unemployment rate. You can find several books discussing this, and the practice was not limited to Germany. This book discusses similar behaviors in Great Britain and Czechoslovakia in the same time frame.
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The 1920s were after the (First World) war. Soldiers were coming home from the front. The majority were "bachelors" but quite a few of them had wives.
"Society" needed jobs for these returning soldiers. In some cases, a wife worked because her husband had been killed or incapacited in the war. But if her husband were "able" and working, it was considered "fairer" for the wife to lose her job so that it could be given to another returning soldier.
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