What arguments does the Catholic Church use to require Trinitarian intent on the part of the baptizer for a 'valid' baptism?
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Here's quoting a prominent Roman Catholic commentary on Matt. 28:19. Note the common Roman Catholic hermeneutic is to interpret Scriptures relative to how church fathers interpreted them rather than the possible ways to interpret Scripture today. Thus, Matt. 28:19 did not need to be a baptismal formula for Matthew if early church fathers latter took it to be so.
- The apostolic commission is couched in the terms of the experience of the early Church. Brief as it is, it is an unusually clear presentation of what the apostolic Church understood itself to be. The Church acts in virtue of the commission that Jesus has received-a commission that is without limit. By his authority they may make disciples of all nations; there is no longer any question of the restriction of the mission to Jews. baptizing them: Their work is to baptize and to teach. Baptism is a rite of initiation; to baptize “into the name” is to signify that the person baptized belongs to the Trinity of persons whose names are invoked in baptism. It seems unlikely that the Trinitarian formula was the earliest baptismal formula employed, and Mt here reflects a more mature practice. -- Brown, R. E., Fitzmyer, J. A., & Murphy, R. E. (1996). The Jerome Biblical commentary (Vol. 2, pp. 113–114). Prentice-Hall.
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Source: stackoverflow.com
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