Does the divine council in Psalm 82 correspond to different religions that we see in the world today?
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In a word, "NO." And yes, I have read what Michael Heiser has written regarding Psalm 82:6. I don't think anyone TRANSLATES "Ellohiym" here as "judges." That is not a proper translation. The most literal TRANSLATION is "powers" or "mighty (ones)' - and invariably refers to those that have power and authority (whether this power is real and righteous or divine, or inherent, or imparted or imaginary or corrupt is determined by the CONTEXT).
The CONTEXT of the psalm clearly identifies the referent of the term. It clearly says that these "elohium" "judge," i.e perform the act of judgement, and do so unjustly (v.2). That would make them "judges" by definition, and corrupt judges at that.
After identifying their corrupt judgment, it goes on (vs.3-4) to admonish these judges (these who are "judging" unjustly) to correct their behavior by defending the needy from the hand of the wicked.
The Psalmist goes on to bemoan the ignorance and darkness of the powerful being about whom he is complaining and attributes the disharmonious conditions in his world (the "out of course" condition of the "foundations of the earth") to them at vs 5.
At vs. 6, we find the declaration that these who are doing all this corrupt judgment are "gods" (elohiym") and children (sons) of God (the most High). However... IN CONTEXT the next sentence is introduced with the conjunction of contrast "But" (Hebrew. 'aken' most assuredly") and clearly shows that while someone (presumably God) has called and by contrast, experience the universal division between gods and men - they will DIE despite their power and authority (vs. 7).
Clearly the subjects of the term "Elohiym" are powerful beings (again the most literal translation of the term) who are executing judgments (and do poorly). That would make them "judges" BY DEFINITION, even though the word "elohiym DOES NOT MEAN ONTOLOGICAL DEITIES?
In fact, Jesus Christ explicitly identifies the ones "called gods" in Psalm 82 as those "to whom the word of God came." That could ONLY be the Israelites in general and, given the context of the Psalm, concerned with righteous judgment as it clearly is-those who were empowered by that word to JUDGE in Israel. It's pretty obvious. So obvious (I believe) in fact that I don't think Heiser has a valid argument AGAINST it.
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