Why didn't Anne Boleyn consent to divorce?

Henry did want an annulment from her at first. he was looking into that possibility in february 1536 (Jane had already moved into the chambers right next to his rooms by then and he was openly courting her), so that mustve been his original plan. I don't know why it didnt happen then tho. another thing I heard was that the charges of adultery and everything was brought to Henry by a nobleman from the Catholic faction, not Cromwell.

so what I think happened was that Henry told Cromwell he wanted an 'out', and then either -

1. Cromwell and the Catholic noblemen at court worked together in making the charges and one of the noblemen brought the charges to Henry, who had Cromwell investigate them, or
2. While Cromwell was looking for an out, the Catholic nobleman who's said to have brought the charges to Henry did it without Cromwell's knowledge, and Henry had Cromwell investigate.

The only thing I'm sure of, whether Cromwell and Henry had any part in inventing the charges or not, is that these charges were very convenient for both of them to believe, since they both wanted to be rid of her.

Which is why even before her trial, her death sentence had already been decided and the swordsman had already been called. Boleyn defended herself in the trial, saying that she had proof that on most of the dates she was accused, she was with other people who could confirm that she didn't do it. It was so blatantly clear that many of the charges were false, yet she was sentenced. so obviously Henry knew she hadnt done it, it was just convenient for him to believe the charges. I hope the way ive written this isn't confusing.

Henry did get an annulment from her, tho, which I'm not sure why he did, bc he was rid of her anyway. His marriage to Anne Boleyn was declared null and void on 17th may, and Elizabeth was declared a bastard on 1st July and Henry didn't see her for months

But in any case, Henry didnt need Anne's consent. he could have just gotten an annulment like he first planned in February. He had Cranmer who'd do whatever he said and find some way to annul the marriage, which he did. but once he had the charges brought to him, maybe he thought it was easier to dispose of her this way? or he probably was so done with her that he forced himself to believe the charges

There are good answers to this already, but I've got some recently unearthed evidence in mind which is also relevant for this topic. Namely, it turns out that Henry specified the detail of the would-be execution in a warrant book:

“We, however, command that… the head of the same Anne shall be… cut off.”

Clearly Anne's wishes, whether for divorce or some other option, were not in Henry's consideration when he made that statement. Hence, the answer to the question is "Anne wasn't given a say in her fate" rather than what she would have wanted (possibly divorce, possibly something else, but we really can't know).

Further relevant information from the same article indicating that Tracy Borman at least sees this as lifting culpability for the execution from Thomas Cromwell to the King (even if Cromwell had helped manoeuvre Anne into the position she found herself in):

The warrant book reveals that Henry worked out details such as the exact spot for the execution (“upon the Green within our Tower of London”), making clear Kingston should “omit nothing” from his orders. ...

Henry’s instructions were not followed to the letter, though, partly due to a series of blunders, Borman said. “The execution didn’t take place on Tower Green, which is actually where we still mark it at the Tower today. More recent research has proved that… it was moved to opposite what is today the Waterloo Block, home of the crown jewels.”

[Borman] added: “Because we know the story so well, we forget how deeply shocking it was to execute a queen. They could well have got the collywobbles and thought we’re not going to do this. So this is Henry making really sure of it. For years, his trusty adviser Thomas Cromwell has got the blame. But this shows, actually, it’s Henry pulling the strings.”

I'm not sure if an answer from the community is forthcoming, so I'll take a stab at an answer based on newly-read information including comments to my original post. This answer comes comes with the caveat it's pieced together by me - a non-expert in this milieu of history - from only recently-read articles and a little reading between the lines.

It is the disputed claim that Anne Boleyn had become a political opponent or obstacle to Thomas Cromwell, suggesting that his investigation of her was personally-motivated and biased. In spite of that, a cited statement in Wikipedia says that Cromwell did not manufacture the adultery accusation against her - suggesting that the rumor was making its rounds independent of and prior to Cromwell's investigation.

All that said, adultery was one of the treasonable charges Anne was accused of, and I gather that the seriousness of that accusation (and the others, including plotting the king's death) meant that divorce or other such "easy" exits from her title and marriage were out of the question.

So it appears the answer to "why didn't Anne Boleyn consent to divorce?" is that divorce was never offered to her because of the seriousness of the charges against her. It looks to me that Henry VIII himself might simply have been chiefly interested in getting out of his marriage to Anne so he could remarry Jane Seymour, and perhaps was not personally invested in her death as the means to achieve that. It would seem that Cromwell made use of the opportunity of the king charging him with finding an "out" from his marriage to pursue his personal vendetta against Anne, e.g. by pursuing or inflating treasonable charges against her. I.e. instead of "scaring her" with the threat of charges and offering divorce as an option to save her neck.

Wikipedia