How is the Vulgate rendering of Romans 5:12 explained (Roman Catholic perspective)?

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In this case, in quo is a very literal translation of the Greek ἐφ' ᾧ, which is preposition ἐπῐ́ ruling the dative article ᾧ. In Latin, ἐπῐ́ translates to in. As Quintillian said, "Noster sermo articulos non desiderat", our language does not use articles, so the article has to become something else. Here it becomes a relative pronoun, and goes to ablative to satisfy Latin syntax.

So much for linguistics; what does ἐπῐ́ + dative mean? According to Wiktionary, which sources Liddell & Scott:

(with dative)

  • on, upon

    καθέζεται ἐπὶ θρόνῳ.‎ // kathézetai epì thrónōi. // He sits down on the throne.

  • in

  • at, near
  • over
  • in honor of
  • against
  • in addition to, over, besides

  • (with duplication of head noun) after

    ὄγχνη ἐπ’ ὄγχνῃ γηράσκει‎ // ónkhnē ep’ ónkhnēi gēráskei // One pear after another ripens.

  • in the power of

  • according to
  • (of conditions or circumstances) in, with
  • (of time, never in proper Attic) at, on
  • (of time) after
  • (expressing a cause) on account of, for
  • (expressing a purpose) for
  • (of a condition) on
  • for (i.e. in exchange for)
  • (of a name) for
  • in charge of

In all, 19 different senses. So which one of the 19 is right? That depends on context, and different translators might validly pick different options here. The Praxapostolos you quoted picks sense 14, "(expressing a cause) on account of, for". The Latin in is closer to senses 1, 2 and 3.

Of course, the sentence must make sense theologically, so not all senses may be used, but if one does not start with a position where the sin of Adam cannot be the same original sin all inherit, then one can definitely come to this reading.

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